Hello All,
Let’s say that the following cash flows of the project:
Cf0 = -100
CF1 = 45
CF2 = 65
CF3 = 90
When we calculate the value of the firm, why do we calculate the PV of all future cash flows? Why don’t we subtract the investment required at t=0? I am curious. Can someone please guide me?
In above example, I got Value = 163.81 @ 9.51% WACC.
Please help.
Allalongthewatchtower