Capitalizing vs. expensing effect on cash flow

I thought the difference between capitalizing a cost (I.E. maintenance cost) and expensing a cost results in a difference between reporting. I did not know this had an effect on actual cash flow.

Apparently, capitalizing a cost results in a higher CFO than expensing it. How come this is to be?

Because when you capitalize it the cash flow to purchase it is classified as CFI, but when you expense it the cash flow to purchase it is classified as CFO.

As these are cash outflows, capitalizing gives higher CFO than expensing.

Are you physically paying periodic cash expenses when you expense the cost, vs. making a one time cash down payment when you capitalize the asset?

Not necessarily.

You buy a truck for $50,000 cash. If you expense it, you have a $50,000 expense on your income statement, and a $50,000 CFO outflow on your cash flow statement. If you capitalize it, you have a $50,000 asset on your balance sheet, some amount of depreciation on your income statement, and a $50,000 CFI outflow on your cash flow statement.

Ok, maybe I am looking at this wrongly.

So, the cash flow statement allows us to classify the different cash flows that occur?

In relation to the above example, if we decide the capitalize the cost, the cash flow (which still occurs in the same time if you were to expense it) would be classified as an investing activity rather than an operating activity?

Correct on both counts.

Think of capitalizing the cost as storing it on the balance sheet. This will result in fixed assets being higher, which will be a cash outflow under CFI. Then, you’d subsequently move the expense a bit at a time to the income statement through depreciation or amortization expense.

In contrast, expensing an item moves the entire cost all at once to the income statement.

Since income statement items are CFO and changes in FIxed Assets are CFI, this means that (while the total cash flow whould be the same when expensing or capitalizing), the component parts (CFO vs CFI) will be different under capitalizing vs expensing.

Fixed that for you.

If I may add a related question regarding the tax effect of capitalizing vs expensing:

If a company does choose to capitalize an incurred cost, and thereby observes a higher net income in the initial years of the purchase, this only affects the pretax (financial) income, correct? That is, the taxable income is not affected by this choice, and thus the actual taxes paid won’t be affected.

I hereby appoint you CPB (Chief Picky "B*ST*RD). And so I’m clear - that’s a designation of the highest stripe.

Correct. Tax accounting works on a “modified cash” basis. Under financial reporting, a company might choose one or the other for a variety of reasons (often for the purposes of managing earnings). However, under tax accounting, the company wouldn’t have a choice - it would be capitalized and depreciated/amortized (typically using some form of accelerated depreciation/amortization).

In either case, because there would be a timing mismatch, this would create a deferred tax asset or liability. If it were expensed on the Income statement, (at least for this transaction) Income Tax Expense would be less than Tax Payable, increasing DTA. If it were capitalized, since capitalized items tend to be depreciated/amortized straight line for Financial Reporting purposes and expensed on an accelerated basis for tax purposes, ITE would exceed Tax Payable, increasing DTL (or decreasing DTA).

Ok, that makes sense. Thank you so much for clarifying that!!