It seems that in an AR model, the significance of the actual lagged variables doesn’t matter, as long as you have no serial correlation in the residuals. Is this correct?
For instance, in Reading 13, Q17 on page 488 of the 2014 CFAI book 1, part A only addresses the fact that none of the autocorrelations are significant, therefore the model is correctly specified. Yet the lag 1 variable has a t-stat of -.8757 (not significant).
Also in Part b, how does a difference of sales of 1% from lnSales(t-1) - lnSales(t-2) translate to 1.01 and a difference of sales of 2% from lnSales(t-4)-lnSales(t-5) translate to 1.02? Wouldn’t we have to know the actualy sales figures figures? Or is there some mathematical property for exponents that I’m missing?
Thanks for your help.