CFAI morning exam Q2011 Q 8

Part C

P/L of forwards - how can that be any different then contract rate of .87?

IM confused also, I calculated the return of the total portfolio exposed to the currency. The way its written i understand that 35million is hedge at the initial rate is 0.8.

So i only exposed the return to the currency fluctuation. anyone has an explnation?

thanks

The profit from the forward isn’t the difference between the initial spot rate and the forward rate; it’s the difference between the forward rate and the spot rate at expiry: without the hedge they would have received 0.80 PLN for each LHS, but with the hedge they receive 0.87 PLN for each LHS; that’s a profit of 0.07 PLN per LHS.

(Note, too, that bullet point 4 in the question is incorrect: it reads that “Both the spot and forward exchange rates are 0.87 PLN = 1 LHS at the beginning of month 0”; they meant that those rates existed _ at time t = 0 _, which is _at the beginning of month 1 _; _the beginnng of month 0 is at time t = -1 _.)

thanks S2000. That bullet point sentence was above confusing for a french guy like me.

My pleasure.

Not surprising.

My hat’s off to anyone taking this exam for whom English is not their native language. It’s hard enough when there’s no language difficulty; with that added to it, it seems insurmountable to me.

But the bullet point 3 reads that “The principal value of the portfolio is currency-hedged using a three-month forward contract”. Shouldn’t we be using the forward rather than the spot exchange rate at the end of month 3?

Thank you for the additional help.