Question summary: On 1 Jan, a bank want to put a collar on its $60m loan, due 1 year from 1 Jan. Loan is 180day Libor+2%, semi-annually. Libor (at t=0) =5%
Collar: Call strike = 6%; Put strike = 4.5% (call = 100k, put =130k). Reset every 6 months.
Question 3: Given a 180-day spot Libor of 6.0% on the 30 June reset date, what is the effective interest rate at the reset of the loan under the assumption of a collar constructed from the loan and the options?
The answer is calculated based on Interest amount / Amount paid out by bank on 1 Jan.
I understand denominator. However, for numerator: they use (6%+2%) instead of (5%+2%)
Why reset rate is not based on Libor at 1 Jan as in example in the cirriculumn (Exhibit 19 of relevant reading)? 1st payment should be based on current libor rate instead?
Do I miss anything? Thanks!!!