How to estimate beta for a stock

Dear everyone,

While doing valuation, I come across this case:

I am regressing FECON EQUITY VN to VN INDEX on the Bloomberg terminal to find its beta to plug in valuation model to get WACC for FECON company, a leading construction firm in Vietnam.

The regression result comes out with a very small beta (0.10), R-squared of 0.10, and t-value at 2.4.

The t-test show that the beta is significant. But the R-squared of 0.10 points out that the model is not a fitted one. The plotted diagram shows very scattered and random points.

I choose daily 3-year data. Simple linear regression. Anyone with a blommberg terminal can try.

So, the question is:

  1. Is the estimated beta suitable to use for WACC calculation in this case?

  2. If the model is not fit (very small R squared), is there any other method to estimate a more reasonable beta?

Anyone has experience on this case? Please leave your comment anyway! Tks guys!

Roger.

Probably not.

Using daily points is not really proper, since the stock price is too noisy to be indicative of the underlying fundamentals on a daily basis. You should either (well most commonly) use two year weekly, or five year monthly data. The R-Sq only tells you how much the market explains the stock movement, it could still be a low but significant number. Ideally, you’d want a high >0.6 R-square coupled with a low SE or p-value, if you don’t want to adjust the regression too much.

I’d personally advise you to use neither, and build up a bottom up beta instead. Especially in an underdeveloped market such as VN. Use Damodaran as reference.

The low R-squared is presumably because you use daily data. If t is significant (or the F-statistic for the whole regression, though F will almost always be significant if at least one of the t-stats is), then it means that beta is successfully explaining something… it’s just that there’s a lot of “other factors” that explain day-to-day differences from the index. If the stock is illiquid for some reason, it wouldn’t be too surprising if day-to-day mismatches in supply and demand push the price around a lot on a daily basis and dilute the effects of systemic factors.

If you switch to a weekly or monthly return series, a lot of the daily noise will likely wash out, and that should improve your R^2. Your beta could change, but it’s most likely to remain around the same.

You generally want to measure beta across a full market cycle. The way beta behaves in an up market and a down market can be different, and so using a full market cycle tends to reduce the effects of this by averaging it out over what can be expected long term. If you only regress numbers from an up cycle or a down cycle, your estimates are likely to be biased in whatever way beta behaves during that part of the cycle. Remember that WACC and CAPM type required returns are intended for long-term estimations. So basing your estimate on 3 years is really problematic (though if the company has been listed only 3 years, maybe you have little choice - in that case, the option Mr. Smart mentioned is clearly a better option).

The low beta suggests that the stock is not very correlated or responsive to the local market index. That could be because it’s an international company and correlated to something else, or it could simply be that there’s a more important thing that’s driving the stock price (say, the international price of a key input like oil or something). Or it could be that it’s a utility or staple goods company, or that it’s a state-owned/dominated enterprise that has a state-mandated profit margin, so that the value of this stock is expected to be supported in some way by state subsidy.

If you abandon this method of computing beta, based on the idea that the market doesn’t do very much to affect the price, you might go ahead and use the average historical return for the stock. But my guess is that it won’t be that different from the CAPM number, because beta is small and R^2 is high, so you might not improve things much. You could also try to figure out what the other driving force behind profits are and see if you can include that into an expanatory variable in your model (though this would then require a long-term prediction for that variable in order to turn it into an estimate of the return from that factor).

The bottom-up beta idea isn’t necessarily bad, but it’s harder to do than you’d expect because it requires you to find comparable companies and then calculate the unlevered beta for those companies, and then assume that your company is effectively the same as they are (other than the capital structure). In many places, the only comparables are operating in other countries, which is a different enough context that the betas may be markedly different, and estimated off of different market indexes in the first place. Even if the comparables are in the same country and industry (which usually requires that there be a large and diverse economy to support enough listed companies in the space), you still run into the problem that to calculate the beta for those companies still requires regressing historical data before unlevering them, so the errors that potentially come from the levered beta estimate in the beginning don’t actually disappear, they just get averaged together with everyone else’s errors.

Hi bchad, many thks for a very comprehensive response.

I will try your suggestion: weekly data for 5 year period. I will post the corresponding result for us to expand our discussion.

I will also attempt the bottom-up approach to build beta. This is the first time I try this, so I hope to receive your support along the process.

Tks again!

Roger.

I just look up damodaran files as you suggest, and it turns out that his bottom up beta is quite close to the regression result if I use monthly, 5 year data, about 0.7.

I guess the problem to my abnormal result lies in the fact that I use too frequent and short time data.

Thanks for your help! I learnt a great lesson today.

Bottom up betas get even more accurate if you could break down the company into SBUs, and then calculate a weighted market value average of the betas. But the peers you should use and the definition of beta in this case, largely depends on the marginal investor. So it’s quite subjective, but if properly defined, the most practically accurate.

The errors don’t get averaged out, if you remain consistent with your control parameters. The margin of error arising from regressions is diluted away.

Of course the independent variable will always be the market index, so it is always consistent.

I dont understand what you mean by “The margin of error arising from regressions is diluted away.” Can u explain further? Thanks a lot for the help!

Roger.

Yes, but do we really have a market index? If so, which “market index” do we use? Is the market index the only independent variable? This is all assuming a stock return based regression. One of many ways to estimate a beta.

When you increase the number of data points, you reduce the standard error of the statistic. More proxy data measuring the same dependent variable will give you less margin of error.