Study Session 5: Financial Reporting and Analysis: Intercorporate Investments, Post-Employment and Share Based Compensation, and Multinational Operations
Question #26. When calculating debt to equity ratio for the consolidation method the answer in the book states $1000 / $1750. Can somebody please explain how we got $1750? I realize that we added $1430 (total equity) and $320 (investment in Boswell), but don’t understand why. Thanks.
If I have only less than 20%, but have control over the company which method should be used?
Fair value method or Acquisition?
Again if I own more than 50% but no control, which method?
I see a little bit of conflicitng approaches to figuring out what “income from investments in associates” really is.
Please can someone explain to me how you know if theres a Net Asset B/S exposure vs Net Liability exposure and how this is different under the temporal method vs current rate method?
When using historical rates, which one do you use when there’s a half year? Is it the start of year historical rate when using temporal? For income statement, when using average rates, do you use the average from when you acquired the company (if acquired mid-year), or the average for calendar year, or average of fiscal year?
Just a quick thread to vent a little. Holy crap this vignette is hard - I’ve been stuck on the first question for over 10 minutes now, perhaps I’m just tired but can’t even seem to wrap my head around what the question is even asking me to do! Has anybody else found this one to be of next level difficulty? Please tell me I’m not the only one - this is demoralising! Haha. If the actual exam is anything like this I reckon I’ll just have to punt FRA entirely.
just out of my curiosity.
some of adam’s equpment is leased, annual (eoy) lease payments are eur 10 mil for the next 6 years ( including 12-31-18 pmt) and the avg interest rate on the leases is 6.4% . to make financial statements comparable with the rest, analyst B adjusts them by replacing the operating leases with financial leases as of 1/1/2018 , he assumes leased equipment has zero salvage value.
other given data : total assets 2018: 856,750 ; ebt: 23150 ; income taxes : 7000; int income : 20000 ; ebit 43150
I`m struggling with periodic pension cost calculations and formula and have the following question.
When looking gto the TPPC formula which is total periodic pension cost formula we have:
current service cost + interest cost - actual return on plan assets (+/-) actuarial gains/losses + prior service cost
On Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital, would these be equity and liability accounts for a bank?
For example, Tier 2 capital (sub instruments with original maturity >5 years) would be sub debt issued by the bank, and therefore is a liability on the bank’s balance sheet and a source of cash; it would not be sub debt assets that were purchased by the bank.
My intuition is that you can’t use assets to fund RWA - it would have to be from the other side of the balance sheet. Am I thinking about this correctly?
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