Study Session 9: Equity Valuation: Valuation Concepts
I have been reading equity valuation recently and find out that the weakness of CAPM are low explanatory power and more than one required return if stock is traded in more than one market.
The question is do we have a better model that solve this problem or we just have to calculate more than on required return in practice.
In the CFAI text, it shows HPR with two formulas:
r = Dividend Yield + Price Appreciation, [(Div + Price1)/Price0] - 1
Then it restates that it could be thought of as
E(r) = required return + convergence of price to value, such that E(r) = r + [(V0-P0)/P0], where V0 is the intrinsic value
I understand the first formula, but the second formula is tripping me up as we’re adding the required return on top of the original HPR formula…
Just hammering out small details and found some inconsistencies in my notes
FCFE in the year you pay back debt, is it higher or lower?
I feel like it would be lower in the year you pay back debt (due to negative net borrowing) and then increase in the years after, due to the fact that you have lower interest cost but what happens to my net borrowing? Is it now lower offsetting any of the saving from the lower interest payment?
Any help would be appreciated
Is my understanding correct? Below is what I’m seeing on mocks. I think knowing this concept will be good for a point or two on the exam.
Multi-Factor Models (have Betas): Use Short-Term Risk Free Rate
Build Up Models (No Betas): Use Long-term Risk Free Rate
A little help here
For the Ibbotsen Chen model [(1+inflation)x(1+RealGDPGrowth)x(1+Changes in PE)-1] +Yield of Market
Am I subtracting the risk free rate at the end?
Granted, almost all my notes say to do so…. But then I came across notes from my TT’S and CFAI mocks that say not to include it. Now I’m confused.
Which one is right? Is there a situation where I would include it and one where I wont?
Thanks for the help
anybody can help me to understand how the formula for the GGM equity risk premium is derived?
GGM equity risk premium = Dividend yield year ahead + LT earnings growth rate - LT govt bond yield
In CAFI equity item sets;
Stack questions Armishaw’s assumption in his 2014 valuation (Exhibit 2) that a perpetuity would best describe the terminal value of the stream and suggests that residual income should fade over time. Stack further suggests that a persistence factor of 0.50 might be appropriate.
Q. Using the information in Exhibit 2, comparing Armishaw’s approach to terminal value to Stack’s approach, Stack’s assumption leads to a 2024 value that is approximately:
From the vignette, “Raman collects additional data for valuing PBRI using the multistage RI model. For this model, he assumes an annual growth rate of residual income of 15% during the forecast horizon of 5 years (Years 1 to 5) and discounts the terminal year’s residual income as a perpetuity.” The question asks for the discounted value of terminal RI in Year 5.
I am not sure what year to use to discount the terminal RI back to the present. PV of cont. RI in year T-1 = RI in year T/(1+r-w)
When you’re asked to calculate risk premium based on a number of factors and the vignette gives you both the return on short term government securities and long term government securities, do you always subtract your total equity return by the long term rate to find the premium?
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