Study Session 10: Equity Valuation: Industry and Company Analysis and Discounted Dividend Valuation
Q) The Stockholders in a company owns 500 shares. The New Public Issue is there with 600 Shares. Each share price will be traded at $20 with a 4% spread. The cost will be $400000. Calculate the net Proceeds?
2. $ 19,200
3. $ 11,600
4. $ 15,600
Can anybody help me on this problem?
There’s this question on the online question bank about determining the risk premium for a stock using the GGM, with a 1.5% adjustment for company size. This company’s revenues and earnings are cyclical in terms of both the business cycle as well as seasonality. After calculating the required return for the company’s equity, to get to the risk premium I subtracted the short-term government bond yield (since last time I subtracted the long-term yield and got it wrong, I was at that time told that the short-term is appropriate since the company is cyclical), wrong again….
What ROIC formula is everybody using? There are at least 3 described in the book:
- In Reading 29 says the denominator is calculated as operating assets less operating liabilities …… “invested capital” means book values and exclude cash
- In Reading 29 footnote says invested capital includes cash and cash equivalents …. so include cash?
- In Reading 32 says the denominator is total invested capital ….. since TIC=MVIC this would imply to use market values
In residual dividend method:
Are dividend calculated after deducting equity contribution for capital expenditure only or working capital expenditure as well??
Wiley Question Of The Week: Equity Valuation- Industry and Company Analysis in a Global Context (Sponsored)
The following is a paid post sponsored by Wiley
Sparky Industries posted a dividend of $1.15 in 2011, $1.18 in 2012, and $1.30 in 2013.
What is the compound annual growth rate in the dividends?
Does sustainable growth rate assume growth is generated through internal funds AND debt? or is it just internal funds?
Trying to validate a possible error.
Company has trailing 12 month EPS of 20.57.
Included in that number is a $0.45/share restructuring charge and a one time charge of $0.90/share for a one time expense. Both charges shouldn’t occur in the future.
Should 12-month EPS based on underlying earnings be $19.22 or $21.92?
Why would preferred stocks be considered as HTM and commercial papers not?
In order to calculate working capital needed for FCFF, why would we take the change in all current assets (excluding cash) and current liabilities, do not the two include current non operational accounts?
I do not get to properties of the Excess Earnings Method:
1.The EEM allows for valuing working capital, fixed assets, and intangible assets using different discount rates.
How is that, how does it use different discount rates?
2. EEM is only rarely used in pricing entire private businesses.
Should not EEM a method of closely, privately held companies?