Study Session 10: Equity Valuation: Industry and Company Analysis and Discounted Dividend Valuation
Does anyone have an easy way to remember that it’s the trailing P/E that has (1+g) in the numerator as opposed to the leading P/E? I keep forgetting it.
I am having trouble determining when to discount the terminal value by the required return and when not to.
Am I missing the part of the question where it differentiates the time differences? why accept a value one way and not the other?
This might be obvious to others but I am struggling with the difference, would appreciate some help.
Extract from a vignette on the official CFA website -
‘Still concerned with the estimate of growth after 2019, Stack asks Armishaw what the present value of growth opportunities (PVGO) will be in 2019 when the perpetual growth period begins.’
‘Present Value in 2019’
When I see a statement such as this one, am I being asked to calculate the value at the beginning of 2019, or at the end of 2019?
Hi, I keep getting confused with dividend calculations. So if a company will start paying dividend after 4 years and the first dividend is $1 and growth rate is 5%. r is 7%. What is the value? Shouldn’t 1 x (1+5%)/ (7% - 5%)(1+7%)4 be equal to 1/ (7% - 5%)(1 + 7%)3.
How do I know when to use the former and when to use the latter?
Question on adjusted EBITDA.
So, from my understanding, when doing trade comparatives in valuation, adjusted ebitda/ebit is commonly used because it is a good proxy for cashflow and it adjusts for non-recurring items.
From CFAI book:
[question removed by moderator]
Why are these two number different wouldn’t the direct calculation of P0 / E0 be the same as (1+g)*(1-d)/(r-g)
Q) The Stockholders in a company owns 500 shares. The New Public Issue is there with 600 Shares. Each share price will be traded at $20 with a 4% spread. The cost will be $400000. Calculate the net Proceeds?
2. $ 19,200
3. $ 11,600
4. $ 15,600
Can anybody help me on this problem?
There’s this question on the online question bank about determining the risk premium for a stock using the GGM, with a 1.5% adjustment for company size. This company’s revenues and earnings are cyclical in terms of both the business cycle as well as seasonality. After calculating the required return for the company’s equity, to get to the risk premium I subtracted the short-term government bond yield (since last time I subtracted the long-term yield and got it wrong, I was at that time told that the short-term is appropriate since the company is cyclical), wrong again….
What ROIC formula is everybody using? There are at least 3 described in the book:
- In Reading 29 says the denominator is calculated as operating assets less operating liabilities …… “invested capital” means book values and exclude cash
- In Reading 29 footnote says invested capital includes cash and cash equivalents …. so include cash?
- In Reading 32 says the denominator is total invested capital ….. since TIC=MVIC this would imply to use market values
In residual dividend method:
Are dividend calculated after deducting equity contribution for capital expenditure only or working capital expenditure as well??
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