Study Session 15: Risk Management Applications of Derivatives

From Schweser, example on page 144 of book 4.

Manager B has a large position in UK stocks that are similar to a major UK stock index. She wishes to create GBP 15,000,000 of synthetic cash earning 2.0% for a six-month period. The futures index contract is priced at 3,700 with a multiplier of 10. The stock have a dividend yield of 3.0%.

Hi Level III-ers!

Can someone please explain why when calculating the effective rate on an FRA (Ch. 28 – blue box example 1), you annualize at the end of the calculation by subtracting 1 then MULTIPLYING by 360/# of days, but when calculating effective rate on interest rate options (Ch. 29 – blue box example 11), you annualize by RAISING to 365/# of days, then subtract 1. I understand that you use the 360 convention for FRAs, but don’t understand why the calculation is different.

Thanks so much in advance and good luck to everyone out there studying!

Hey all,

why do we not need to calculate future of the investment value when we adjust the asset allocation (or do any of the other forward tricks)?

If we want to create a synthetic position, bond or equity, we need to use the FV of the amount to modifiy:

N_f = 1*cash*(1+RFR)^t / (P_f * multiplier)

And I think I understand why we need to do this to create the exact dollar amount of equity or cash that we want.

Hi guys - Confused with this question re the Apollo Bank Case Scenario.

Item says investment portfolio includes large and small cap domestic stocks and global bonds. Bonds denominated in various currencies and have fixed and floating rates. Fund uses OTC derivatives to hedge risks related to interest rates, FX, adverse security price movements, and payment default.

Q: portfolio most likely has greatest net exposure to which source of risk? 

A) Credit Risk

B) Market Risk

C) Liquidity Risk 

Does anyone have any advice or logic which can help me understand this better? It’s really challenging me and I just can’t seem to get it. Militant repetition until exam day? 

When altering the portfolio mix with futures, say 20mil out of 100mil equity will be reallocate to fixed income. We use equity futures to adjust Beta to 0 to resemble that I first convert the position to cash and then that portion of “cash” will be convert to fixed income with certain duration.

We say that being Long T-Bills + Equity Futures is the same as owning the underlying stock (I think?), but wouldn’t you need different initial cash outlays depending on whether you went down the synthetic route or the outright ownership route?

Example 

Futures: The amount of cash I need to enter the forward contract is my desired investment amount * (1+RFR), e.g. 100mio. I will invest this today and grow it at the risk-free rate and will then have enough cash to pay for the stock at contract maturity.

2009 CFAI Q9: The duration of the fixed leg is 75% of its maturity. Is this convention? 

in the example of using equity and bond futures to achieve portfolio re-allocation. In the calculation, it is clearly assumed that the target beta is the same with the original portfolio (0.8), and target duration is reduced to 0. Why this assumption is built in? Any thoughts? 

I am really confused about using cash beta. Whether i should use 0 or 0.25 as cash beta.

Thanks.

Regards,

Jahid.