Study Session 18: Global Investment Performance Standards
1: internal dispersion has to be for all the reporting periods. External dispersion has to be annually for all years after 2011. Is my understanding correct?
2. If the ECF on a date is “0”, do we still need to know the MV on that date to calculate return? This is regarding GIPS. A Kaplan question says yes. I don’t understand
Based on CAFI item sets, there was a statement that is supposed to be correct but I’m a bit confused.
“Portfolios must be valued in accordance with the definition of fair value, not cost or book values. In fact, fair value supersedes market value”
If the above is correct why is portfolio valuation must be based on market value?
Reading 37, Section 3.12, Referencing GIPS Provision I.5.A.2
Why would MWR can have upward (downward) bias relative to the TWR when large contributions are made just prior to a period of strong (weak) performance?
what are the other factors/scenarios that would make the MWR upward biased relative to the TWR.
Why would MWR be deemed preferable if the portfolio manager can choose the timing of capital contributions and what are the other advantages of MWR over TWR?
Why would TWR is considered a better measurement than MWR for evaluating the external advisor’s investment performance?
I’m tearing my hair out over GIPS. This reading goes on and on and on. I’ve been reading it in the mornings before work for what feels like 2 weeks. Then there’s 50 odd EOC’s and a plethora of calculation questions (TVPI, modified Dietz, etc.). Not that they’re overly difficult, but I spent zero time on GIPS calculations because I didn’t see “calculate” in any of the LOS’s.
Anyone else punt these calculations or should I suck it up and learn them? There’s enough other material in this section to fill an entire AM exam. 100 pages of pure text. Blah.
Why can’t non-discretionary portfolios can’t be added in a composite?
Can someone explain to me the “three geometrically linked monthly returns”? Thank you!
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