I thought the order above was from least to greatest but there is a question on a mock exam that is making me question. It states that the discount basis yield provides teh highest yeild for a 90 day treasury bill
In the Corporate Finance readings on short terms investements (within Reading no. 40, pg. 149) bond equivalent yield is computed just like in rainerh’s post, i.e. (Face value - Purchase price)/Purchase price x 365/days to maturity.
If you then read pg. 312 of the Quantitative Methods book, you will find a note (at the end of the reading, just before the Summary) that when dealing with money market instruments, we obtain the BEY using this simplified approach.
This is true. In Corporate Finance I tell my candidates that this method is quite wrong, but that if they ask you a question about BEY in CF you have to do it that way. You don’t have to like it, however.
So, do you mean that the formula of BEY in CF is actually wrong and the formula in QM shall be correct ? Why CFAI’s curriculum has such discrepancies ?
Sorry, I come here because I consulted some professionals in fixed income field, they all said that the formula in reaging 40 of corporate finance is basically inconsistent with the definition of BEY. I just wonder why there is not any correction in CFAI’s errata.
As a (former) professional in the fixed income field, I was well aware of that.
There have been a few other threads on this topic, wondering which formula for BEY one should use. In Corporate Finance, use the (stupid) formula there; everywhere else, use the correct (Quant, Fixed Income) formula.
Would you please send an e-mail to CFAI requesting them to correct it ? I want to do so, but I think you shall have much bigger power as you are a charter holder and a former professional in fixed income.