· BV per share of equity will decrease with a share repurchase if purchasing price > BV per share.
· A share repurchase is equivalent to the payment of a cash dividend of equal amount in its effect on shareholders’ wealth, all other things being equal.
Can someone explain to me why the above statements are correct?
Suppose that you buy 20 shares at $1.50/sh (> $1.00/sh).
Assets = $70 (= $100 – $30)
Liabilities = $60
Assets = $10
BV = $10/20 shares = $0.50/sh
If you pay a dividend of $100, then shareholders have $100 in cash, but the value of their shares drops by $100. If you repurchase shares for $100, then shareholders (as a group) have $100 in cash, but the value of their shares drops by $100. The effect is the same either way.