[FIXED INCOME]

CFA Level I
#1

Hi,

I am a CFA candidate and I am going to sit for the exam this December. I am currently working on Reading 53. Introduction to Fixed Income Valuation and I got stuck on an example in Schewer Note. Please help me!

Example P56 - Book 5 - Schewer Note:

“A $1000 90-day T-bill is priced with an annualized discount of 1.2%. Calculate its market price and its annualized add-on yield on a 365-day year”

Answer:

The discount from face value if 1.2% x 90 / 360 x 1,000 = $3 so the current price is 1000 - 3 = 997"

I dont understand the 1.2% x 90 / 360 x 1,000 = $3

Please help me out!

Thanks a lottt :smiley:

#2

.

#3

Thank you for your reply :smiley:

I thought T-bills are quoted as annualized discount from face value based on 360-day year?

#4

i think 360 is right

#5

.

#6

There are two conventions working in this question.

The T-bill quote is based on a 360-day year; you use that to compute the dollar value of the discount.

Then you convert that to an add-on rate based on a 365-day year.

I wrote an article on comparing yield measures that may be of some help here: http://financialexamhelp123.com/comparing-yield-measures-quant/

#7

Thank you guys so much! I got the point :slight_smile:

#8

My pleasure.

#9

The cirriculum provides a formula for this.

Discount Value = Discoount Yeild * Face Value * (t/360)