Hi, thank you in advance.
I get that, a callable bond has a negative convexity at low yields, meaning that increases in YTM increase more the price than decreases in YTM decreases in price.
I just read that if the option value is positive (option value = Z - OAS) it is beneficial for the bondholder, not the issuer.
For a bondholder with a callable bond why would its option be positive when there are low interest rates (it should be positive for the issuer not the bondholder right?, I get that at low yields the call option becomes more valuable but for the issuer shouldn’t it, not for the bondholder, that is in risk of his bond being bought)