# Present value with annuity

An investment pays €300 annually for five years,n with the first payment occurring today. how is the present value (PV) of the investment discounted at a 4% annual rate is *closest *to €1,389?

I can find answer closed to €1,336. why is it multiplied by 1.04?

thank you!

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Because it’s an

annuity: the first payment occurs today.duePut your calculator in

Beginmode.Simplify the complicated side; don't complify the simplicated side.

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It is a beginning period and not an ending period annuity.

With an ending period annuity your answer (1336) is correct.

you need to change the way your calculator is doing annuities by setting it on “BGN”

another way (that I personally prefer) is to modify the calculation.

PMT + annuity end period(N-1) = Annuity beginning period

in your example:

300 + Annuity end period (4 periods)

300 + 1089 = 1389

Hey man,

Try this out in your financial calculator, whilst taking into consideration the advice provided above.

1. [2nd][BGN][2nd][SET] > Puts in BGN Mode.

2. [2nd][QUIT] > Returns to Standard Calc.

3. [2nd][CLR TVM] > Clears TVM work sheet > 0.

4. 5 [N] > Five year periods > N=5.

5. 4 [I/Y] > IR > I/Y = 4%.

6. 300 [PMT] > Set payment annually to > PMT = 300.

7. CPT [PV] > Gives you the PV > 1,388.97.

I hope this helps, if you need me to explain anything, let me know.

Also, I posted a video in the forum for TVM financial calculations… check it out!

Best,

RH x

Studying With

Hi, if you’re using the BAII calculator switch to BGN mode by pressing 2nd BGN(PMT) button then inter the numbers as giving in the question above You get the correct answer of $1,389 /-or also you can treat the question as ordinarily annuity and add back the $300 fst payment to the answer you have got.

plugin the bellow will give the right answer: N =4,I\¥ =4 ,PMT =$-300,FV =0 ,Calculate PV then add to the answer the $300 which the investor received all ready.

I hope this helps

Studying With

Hi

All depend on the time of receiving cash flow.if the first CF is received today it will not be bcbg discounted.

For more informations you can have a look on my course:

https://www.udemy.com/master-corporate-finance-with-practical-exercices/...

Studying With

Because it is an

annuity due,you do not discount the first payment (occurring in t=0). Therefore:(no discounting)^{1}= €288^{2}= €277^{3}= €267^{4}= €256If you sum it all : €300 + €288 + €277 + €267 + €256 =

€1,389If it is an

ordinary annuity,you do discount the first payment (occurring in t=1). Therefore:^{1}= €288^{2}= €277^{3}= €267^{4}= €256^{5}= €247If you sum it all : €288 + €277 + €267 + €256 + €247 =

€1,336