Hello,
Say you want to buy a car for $4,329 and the bank offers you a 5-year loan at 5% yearly interest. You want to calculate what the PMTs will be so you apply the PVannuity formula, and isolate PMT and you get a PMT of $1,000.
Constructing this you get:
t = 0: (4329) t = 1: 1000 t = 2: 1000 t = 3: 1000 t = 4: 1000 t = 5: 1000
The future value of this annuity will turn out to be $5,525, so the interest you paid was (5525-4329) => 1196. And to verify this: 4329*(1+5%)^5 => 5525
HOWEVER, attempting to construct an amortization table shows different results for interest paid :
Year Amt Available Ending Amt (+5%) PMT Amount available after PMT
1 4329 4545 1000 3545 2 3545 3723 1000 2723 3 2723 2859 1000 1859 4 1859 1952 1000 952 5 952 1000 1000 0
So the interest you paid was (5000-4329) = 671. Effectively, this is (5000/4329)(1/5) - 1 = 2.92%/year
So why is there a difference here? How is the bank effectively charging 5% compounded interest per year? Or does it only charge 5% on the AMT Available per year? Thank you.