# Question on magnifying effect of leverage

Hello everyone,

I’ve been studying “Reading #34 - Measures of Leverage” of L1, and I encountered the following statements near the end of chapter of the curriculum and Schweser, respectively:

“The farther unit sales are from the breakeven point for high-leverage companies, the greater the magnifying effect of this leverage.”

“Leverage of either type magnifies the effects of change in sales on net income. The further a firm’s sales are from its breakeven level of sales, the greater the magnifying effects of leverage on net income.”

However, according to the formula of DTL (degree of total leverage):

DTL = Q(P - V) / [Q(P - V) - F - I],

the magnifying effect (I assume it to be the percentage change in net income that results from a percentage change in sales, which is basically DTL) must get lower as Q gets higher, mathematically.

This seems to contradict to the statements mentioned in the books. I wonder if I did anything wrong?

Thanks a lot.

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Does anyone have any thoughts on this, please? Thanks a lot.

The statement as given is wrong.

Color me shocked.

It’s true that the lower the sales, the greater the leverage.

Simplify the complicated side; don't complify the simplicated side.

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Wow, cool.

Mystery solved. Thank you very much.