'Residual income models recognize value earlier than other valuation models'

Can someone please explain the intuition behind this please?

The biggest portion of total value using a RI model is driven by book value as of today B0. The subsequent discounted RI is a relatively small portion of total value. Whereas, in DCF methods (DDM, FCFF, FCFE, etc…) the majority of value is driven by terminal value

ah yes, how terminal value does not dominate under RI. Just the job, thanks.