Hey guys there is a CFA EOC that asks the following (question modified as its quite long)
What is the terminal selling price require for 15% IRR if item is sold after 3 years:
A: 588,028
B: 593,771
C: 625,839
The outlay is 500,000
After tax CF is 60,000
Book Value at sale is 380,000
I am trying to do the following:
CF0= -500,000
CF1 = 60,000
CF2 = 60,000
CF3 = 133,751 (working below)
Salvage above we are trying to work out so the correct answer is C. If we plug in C to the formula T(Salt-BVt) = 0.30(625,839-380,000) = 73,751. This is then added to CF3 = 60,000 + 73.751 = 133,751
With all this in mind, can we not put these cash flows in and then just go to the IRR function and press CPT and surely this would return 15% which would suggest C is the official answer. Doing this returns -24.77% IRR.
Now 612.0875 = Salvage Value + 60 - 0.3 (Salvage - 380)
Solve for Salvage from above
Salvage=625.839
The mistake you were making is that you were failing to realize that you are also receiving the Salvage Value as a Cashflow at the end, and paying taxes on the excess of Salvage Value over Book Value (380 K) Plus receiving a 60 K Regular project cash flow.