Because of the no growth component of the equation, EPS would not grow. Intuitively, if a company is paying out 100% of its earnings and dividends, earnings would be the same each year. So E0 = E1
I e-mailed CFA Institute about this last year and they finally agreed that it should be E0, and that the questions that used E1 (= E0 × (1 + g)) were incorrect. I thought that they’d have the corrections in the errata by now, but perhaps not.
Being E0 the correct one helps a lot the intuition. This method supposes the separation of a non-growth component ( E0 / r ) from the PVGO component that captures all the growth opportunities. LoL, this is hilarious.
It’s been a few months since I first did SMGI and I just did it again and the stupid E0/E1 caught me again and I got it wrong. I am kinda surprised this issue is still going especially after you emailed the CFAI and received a response about this. The big question is what do we do if the answer options given on Saturday have the result if E0 is used and if E1 is used?