The value of the floating rate bond is 0 on a reset date. But if you were valuing the floating bond on any other date, you will have to calculate the PV of the upcoming coupon payment plus principal.
Whilst the PV fixed rate bond will always be the sum of the present value of cash flows when you value it at any point.
So based on your question, I’d say option 1, but you’d have to account for the PV of cashflows.
CF is exactly what it is, the amount of payments both parties will make and receive.
a swap for 360 days, with quarterly payments. swap rate is 2%, 90-day LIBOR on swap initiation is 1.5%. therefore, on day 90, the fixed payer pays 0.5%(2/4) and the floating payer pays 0.375%(1.5/4)
If they ask for a value, it always given on which date. e.g. 30 days after initiation of the contract. You discount both cashflows using the current (Libor) Spot rates!
So you discount 1 cashflow for the floater, and the other remaining Fixed payments as well. The difference in value is your swap value.
Correct me if im mistaken, but i think Kaplan stated that CFAI changed the way they’ll ask you to value swaps. You are no longer to required to value swaps in between settlement dates and only ON the settlement days (e.g. if it’s a quarterly swap, at time t=90, 180, 270, 360). Can anyone else confirm? Thanks.