Value of investment = beginning value + share of NI - share of Div - Amort of FV excess over BV of PPE
Income = share of NI - share of unsold inventory profit - share of Amortisation of Assets?
Is this one correct? Or should it be just unsold inventory (without profit)?
And should it be just amortisation/depreciation of Assets by their BV? So it leaves us with different amortisation for Value of investment formula and different amortisation for income calculation?