Assume a company bought a fixed asset for USD 1 million, and it obtained a 1-year vendor credit. Will CFI show Capex amounting USD 1 million and CFO a USD 1 million change in account/notes payables? Or there is no impact in Capex since there was no cash out in the year?
Most companies will show no cash flow.
As an analyst, you need to make the adjustment: CFI outflow, CFF (not CFO) inflow.