Hi,
in CFAI Curriculum there is a short text about the misspecification of the multiple regression model. It’s on the page 356 Reading 10 chapter 5.2. Here it is:
If the omitted variable (X2) is correlated with the remaining variable (X1), then the error term in the model will be correlated with (X1), and the estimated values of the regression coefficients a0 and a1 would be biased and inconsistent. In addition, the estimates of the standard errors of those coefficients will also be inconsistent, so we can use neither the coefficients estimates nor the estimated standard errors to make statistical tests.
(Institute 356)
Institute, CFA. 2018 CFA Program Level II Volume 1 Ethical and Professional Standards, Quantitative Methods, and Economics. CFA Institute, 07/2017. VitalBook file.
Ok, from CFAI Curriculum I know that correlation does not mean multicollinearity, but let’s say that correlation raises the chance of encountering multicollinearity. Having two strongly correlated independent variables, as far as I know, is not much welcomed by the econometricians etc. So my question is:
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Why would the error term be correlated with the independent variable?
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Ok, I understand that the standard errors will be wrong then, but why would the coefficient be biased and inconsistent? I know they would change comparing to the model with the omitted variable included, but why would it be automatically wrong?
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Would not we then just have a problem with heteroskedascity?