Currency Forwards in Econ vs Derivatives

So I’m on the derivatives section… and run into the valuing of a currency forward after initiation.

The formula looks really familiar: V = [(FP_t - FP) x Contract Size] / (1 + r)T-t where T is 365 days

The formula from the econ section used simple math and 360 day convention: V = [(FP_t - FP) x Contract Size] / (1 + r(days/360))

Does that mean if the question comes up on the econ section, use 360 days with simple interest and if it comes up in derivatives use 365 days with compounding?

The difference in output may be material only with very large amounts. I mean, the first one is more correct. As I recall, the second one was used only with some currency FX derivatives.

Yes.

The Econ formula assumes LIBOR (nominal interest), while the derivatives formula assumes effective interest.