Terminal value year

Schweser. Pg 212. Multistage residual income model.

In this example, the residual income after year 5 is going to be 0 (or other different assumptions in part 2 and 3 of the question).

Therefore, shouldn’t the terminal value calculation be that of year 5?

I even cross checked other multistage valuation (ddm et al) and found that TV calculation is always of the last year in the penultimate stage.

What exactly am I missing here?