Multi factor models - Macroeconomic model and Inflation (Please HELPPP)

In a multi factor model such as the one below

Ri = ai + bi1FINFL + bi2FGDP + ε_i_

The CFAI text states:

The risk premium for the inflation factor, however, is typically negative. Thus, an asset with a positive sensitivity to the inflation factor (an asset with returns that tend to be positive in response to unexpectedly high inflation) would have a lower required return than if its inflation sensitivity were negative; an asset with positive sensitivity to inflation would be in demand for its inflation-hedging ability.

But I am confused.

If: bi1 > 0 and FINFL is greater than expected (actual - expected) > 0

Then should the required return be higher?

I believe I am interpreting FINFL completely incorrectly. Please help

I’m wondering the same thing

Isn’t F INFL modeled as (expected - actual) instead?

I will check the book.

The same problem here…Does it depend on Ex-ante or Ex-post?

Finfl is negative in general. Hence positive bi1 makes Ri lower, and vice versa.