In a multi factor model such as the one below
Ri = ai + bi1FINFL + bi2FGDP + ε_i_
The CFAI text states:
The risk premium for the inflation factor, however, is typically negative. Thus, an asset with a positive sensitivity to the inflation factor (an asset with returns that tend to be positive in response to unexpectedly high inflation) would have a lower required return than if its inflation sensitivity were negative; an asset with positive sensitivity to inflation would be in demand for its inflation-hedging ability.
But I am confused.
If: bi1 > 0 and FINFL is greater than expected (actual - expected) > 0
Then should the required return be higher?
I believe I am interpreting FINFL completely incorrectly. Please help