I still have problems understanding the concept. Could someone please tell me if I am right or wrong? Help is much appreciated
For pension costs there are 2 possible ways to calculate them. One where we add/subtract each item and another where we look at the ending value minus the beginning value.
(1) current service costs interest costs (+) past service costs (+) actuarial losses (+) actuarial gains (-) return on plan assets (-)
(2) ending net pension liability beginning net pension liability (-) employer contribution (+)
IFRS: current service costs interest costs (+) past service costs (+) expected return using discount rate (-)
USGAAP - general rule: current service costs interest costs (+) _expected return using expected return rate (-)_amortized costs due to corridor rule (+) past service costs (+) actuarial losses (+) actuarial gains (-) return on plan assets (-)
USGAAP - alternative if company chooses to use (rarely): current service costs interest costs (+) past service costs (+) actuarial losses (+) actuarial gains (-) return on plan assets (-)
Am I correct in saying that all items mentioned in the expense section (for IFRS and US GAAP) are expensed through the P&L, whereas the cost items are expensed through P&L as well as through OCI?
it’s me again with a questions regarding the above. According to CFAI EoC, for IFRS:
Components of periodic pension costs that would be reported in P&L: - current & past service costs - net interest expense (net pension liability/asset * discount rate)
Components of periodic pension costs that would be reported in OCI: - remeasurement component (i) net return on plan assets= actual return on plan assets-(plan assets*discount rate (ii) actuarial gains & losses
Given these are answers from CFAI, I can conclude that the periodic pension expenses consist of both components: - current & past service costs - net interest expense (net pension liability/asset * discount rate) - remeasurement component (i) net return on plan assets= actual return on plan assets-(plan assets*discount rate (ii) actuarial gains & losses
Question : Is my assumption right? If so, how does this compare to the above mentioned:
"IFRS: current service costs interest costs (+) past service costs (+) expected return using discount rate (-) "
It does not seem to be the same, or am I completely missing something?