Confused about future value calculation

In Equity/Currency problems, future value is calculated compounding manner as -

Fv = Pv *(1 + r)(days/365)

Whereas in rates/Bonds/FRA problems, future value is calculated as -

Fv = Pv *(1 + r*days/365).

Can someone please help me understand the reasoning behind this? And when to use what formula?

Whenever you are using effective rates, you use the first formula.

Whenever you are using LIBOR rates, you use the second formula.

Or Eurobor, or BEY, or any other _ nominal _ rate.

Shouldn’t a 360 day convention be used for LIBOR, EUROBOR, etc (pretty much everything other than effective rates)?

Good point.

Yes, LIBOR, Eurobor, and so on use 30/360.