dear all,
can someone explain why with the Equity method when we have to calculate the value of the investment at year end (same year when the acquirer has bought lets say 32% of a company and has significant influence) we are doing the following:
Value of investment at year end = Initial investment +%*Associate NI - %*dividends paid by Associate - Amortization of excess amount paid for PP&E. Should I consider the Amortization of excess amount paid for PP&E like an expense that decrease the NI?
regards,