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Risk free rate and the inter temporal rate of substitution

Hi,

Can someone tell me how is the risk free rate is related to the inter temporal rate of substitution?

I know from the formula they are inversely related, but I dont understand the concept behind it.

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I think this thread can help you. In my first post I explain the relationship between ITRS and real risk free rate. If you want, we can elaborate further.

https://www.analystforum.com/forums/cfa-forums/cfa-level-ii-forum/91349903

Regards.

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