i am totally confused by the residence and source jurisdiction.
i am refering to exercise 4 in reading 12, p. 320 of cfa readings
country A 45% taxes
country B 30% taxes
"after 5 decades of living in country A, a wealth entrepreneur, Andrew, has recently retired and taken up residency in country B. he no lives in country B, but has investments in country A.
let’s assume country A were to exercise residence jurisdiciton and country B source jurisdiction, the effective tax rate:
t credit method = max ( t residence, t source)
andrew would remit 30% to country B and apply that remittance toward country A’s 45%tax liability, effecitvely paying country A 15% taxes.
why does the tax liability arise in country A if it is the residence principle and he is resident in country B???
Given the Country A has a higher tax rate of 45% - and Max (Source, Residence) = 45% is the tax. and only 30% can go to Country B - the remaining has to go to country A. The only time no tax would be paid to country A - is if it had < 30% - as its tax rate.
Think of it like this : source is irrespective of where you live and is an absolute rate on income generated in the source country only . Residence is what you net after you pay source taxes and is irrespective of where the money comes from