I’d like to verify if my understanding is right.
A CFO has some material nonpublic information regarding his company that would definitely impact the stock price positively if it came out. He shares it with his wife and his golfing buddy and all of them are covered persons. The golfing buddy buys the stock before the information is made public. In this case:
The golfing buddy is in violation of the standard because he acted on the information.
The wife is not, because she only possesses the information, but did not act on it.
The CFO is not, because gave the information to someone else but did not act on it for personal benefit.
Is that right? Especially regarding the CFO? Or is the CFO in violation?