Kaplan Practice Exams, Volume 2, page 51,
Regarding comment 1, the answer key says:
“Comment 1 is correct. The success of a calendar rebalancing strategy will depend in large part on whether the rebalancing frequency is appropriate to the volatility of the component asset classes. If volatility is high (or rebalancing infrequent), the asset mix can drift to the point where rebalancing could create a market impact, thus increasing the cost of rebalancing dramatically. If volatility is low (or rebalancing too frequent), the portfolio could incur numerous costly small trades to achieve minor adjustments in the asset mix.”
What do they mean by “market impact” ?? How does 1 client portfolio, rebalancing annually, even if the allocation gets out of control, cause a “market impact” ??
CFA, volume 6, page 90, section 3.2.1 says the same thing but does not explain what they mean by “market impact”.
How are we supposed to interpret this?