Link to question: http://www.analystforum.com/forums/cfa-forums/cfa-level-iii-forum/91343435
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The expenses of $96,000 are considered “real” by default, and have to be grossed up to be netted from the pre-tax income. When do you need to do this? Normally you divide real return by (1-tax rate) at the end, but here you have a calculator-input method wherein you compute future I/Y, so it is tricker.
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Her liquidity requirement is the $50,000 in a year for her kid. What about also listing her $3,000,000 annuity she needs to buy in 25 years? Isn’t that a “liquidity requirement” too?
Something about this question gives me the willies.