I saw a few other threads related to this question, but I can’t wrap my head around it.
Salary is 140,000 pre-tax
Expenses are 96,000
Contributes 12,000 to TDA (pretax contribution) each year
Taxes are 25%
Exam question: Calculate PRETAX nominal rate of return.
Steps:
1.) 96,000 expenses, shored up for taxes (96/.75) = 128,000
2.) 140,000 salary - 128,000 shored up expenses = 12,000 left over for contribution to TDA
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My question: do we always have to use AFTER TAX income to pay for expenses? The question asks for the pretax return!
I’d appreciate anyone trying to explain this. I understand the pretax contribution to TDA but not the shoring up of expenses (are expenses after tax?) Thanks