Can someone please explain why the correct answer doesn’t use the following formula? If you are choosing the portfolio with the highest sharpe ratio and using leverage at the risk free rate to get a target return above that, shouldn’t the use of leverage be a negative (or cost) to the portfolio? The correct answer had the use of leverage of the risk free rate as positive .50
I thought the correct formula would be = (7.65)(1-W) + (-0.50)(W)