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Cost Basis in Deferred Capital Gains Tax question

Hello, I’m having a bit of trouble understanding the cost basis concept on deferred capital gains tax (study session 4). I understand you add back the tax associated with asset cost to the FV, as the cost is not subject to this tax.

However, the B factor doesn’t make sense to me, more specifically when B>1. When B>1, then I have made a realized loss on the asset (market price<purchase price), so why is my FV greater here than when B=1. B=1 and B>1 both imply there is no realized gain, so why do I get extra marginal FV for the more loss I realize on sale? If for example I make a huge loss (say B=100), then that will hugely inflate my FV right? Am I not understanding this correctly?

Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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B cannot be greater than 1.  B is the percentage (or fraction) of the asset’s initial value that will be subject to capital gains tax, so:

0 ≤ B ≤ 1

Simplify the complicated side; don't complify the simplicated side.

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S2000magician wrote:

B cannot be greater than 1.  B is the percentage (or fraction) of the asset’s initial value that will be subject to capital gains tax, so:

0 ≤ B ≤ 1

Hi Magic. I’m sorry but think you’re wrong here. B can be 1, <1 or >1 if some of asset value is not recognized for a tax purpose, therefore is tax deductible. As I recall same was mentioned in L3 tax chapter.