Cost Basis in Deferred Capital Gains Tax question
Hello, I’m having a bit of trouble understanding the cost basis concept on deferred capital gains tax (study session 4). I understand you add back the tax associated with asset cost to the FV, as the cost is not subject to this tax.
However, the B factor doesn’t make sense to me, more specifically when B>1. When B>1, then I have made a realized loss on the asset (market price<purchase price), so why is my FV greater here than when B=1. B=1 and B>1 both imply there is no realized gain, so why do I get extra marginal FV for the more loss I realize on sale? If for example I make a huge loss (say B=100), then that will hugely inflate my FV right? Am I not understanding this correctly?
Any help would be greatly appreciated!