# Rolldown return

I do not understand this statement, Can anyone help? Thanks a lot

It is true that if the yield curve is upward (downward) sloping, the rolldown return will be higher (lower) than the start-of-period YTM because the bond will decline in remaining term to maturity over the horizon period and be priced at a lower (higher) YTM at the end of that period.

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Yes. A reminder you can only use roll down return if the stable is up-ward sloping and stable.

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What about the barn? Or the paddock?

Simplify the complicated side; don't complify the simplicated side.

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(sigh) I know why I failed last year now haha.

Big Dreams Require Big Sacrifices - VWJETTY

I am confused about this point too. Can someone help out please?

All they’re saying is that if the yield curve slopes upward, shorter-term forward rates are lower than longer-term forward rates. If the yield curve doesn’t change, then in the future you’ll be discounting by lower forward rates than in the past (because the time to each cash flow will be shorter), so the price will be higher than the original yield curve suggested. A higher price translates into a higher yield.

Simplify the complicated side; don't complify the simplicated side.

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I just posted a simple example here: https://www.analystforum.com/forums/cfa-forums/cfa-level-ii-forum/91364057

Simplify the complicated side; don't complify the simplicated side.

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Hi S2000magician,

Thanks for trying to explain. I am quoting the example you gave so that it is easier to refer. I am still confused. Could you please help me out with the following queries:

(1) In the example you gave, what is the rolldown return? Would it be 6.8081%?

(2) The statement made in the OP said “the rolldown return will be higher (lower) than the start-of-period YTM because the bond will

in remaining term to maturity”. This is different from your example, where the bond value actuallydeclinefrom $1,019.70 to $1,089.13 ($1,029.13 + $60). What am I misunderstanding?increasesThank you once again.

Yes.

Actually, in my example the bond value increased from $1,019.70 to

$1,029.13; the $60 is the coupon payment, which is no longer part of the value of the bond.Depending on the steepness of the yield curve (and whether the bond is selling at a premium or a discount), the bond price may increase or decrease during the holding period. (Why the OP said that it will decline, uncategorically, I don’t understand.) What’s important is that the new YTM is lower than the original YTM (because the yield curve slopes upward and hasn’t changed), so the new bond price is higher than the original YTM suggested it would be.

My pleasure.

Simplify the complicated side; don't complify the simplicated side.

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Hi S2000magician,

Isn’t your new YTM

than your original YTM?higherOriginal YTM = 4.9412%

New YTM = 6.8081%.

Thank you for your help.

No.

Original YTM = 4.9412%.

Realized yield = 6.8081%.

New YTM = 3.0000%.

Simplify the complicated side; don't complify the simplicated side.

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Hi S2000,

Respectfully, isn’t this ~6% return

notthe roll down return and actually the full rolling yield? From the text, the roll down return is a component of this ~6%; ((end price - bgn price)/bgn price). Including the coupon payment makes this the “rolling yield” according to the text. The “rolldown return” is only the price component of total return. Although probably just semantics, for the test I imagine it is an important distinction.