Hedge Ratio for Immunization

In the CFA book it doesn’t explicitly say where the hedge ratio is in the formula on p. 83, but they say that the expression for the notional principal on a interest rate swap to close the gap to zero can be calculated as:

Asset BPV + [NP x (Swap BPV)/100] = Liability BPV.

Re-arranging the formula I got

NP = (Liability BPV - Asset BPV) (100/Swap BPV)

They say a hedge ratio = 100% indicates an attempt to fully immunize the assets and liabilities.

Is the hedge ratio in the above formula “100”? I calculated the example below the formula using 50 instead and got half the amount of the NP, but needed some confirmation.

Thanks in advance

Nvm. I’m dumb. I guess we could scale the swap BVP by notional to get the same effect as multiplying NP by hedge ratio per the book. Blegh.