Tolerance bands - a little subtlety?

So, I thought higher volatility of the asset/or asset class = narrower bands (irrespective of context, book, or question).

But look at this: page 92 of curriculum book 6 says that higher volatility = narrower bands

but page 313 of curriculum book 3 (about asset classes) says that the effect of higher volatility of an asset class depends on assumptions about asset price return dynamics and no conclusive statement is made.

Am I missing something (I guess so)?

Higher volatility equals narrower corridor widths. You could make the argument that higher volatility with high asset correlation could mean wider corridor widths (as the assets are likely to go up and down in tandem - but that would require an additional assumption / information).

Safe to assume you’re original understanding would be the correct answer on the test.

^ Agree. In isolation, higher volatility means narrower corridor width. Any additional circumstances given in the case may result in a different answer.