In order to eliminate currency exposure in an inter-market trade, the investor must, explicitly or implicitly, both borrow and lend in each currency. The essence of this trade is to exploit differences in the slopes of the two yield curves rather than the difference in overall rate levels. The idea, assuming normal, upward sloping yield curves, is to lend at the long end and borrow at the short end on the relatively steep curve, and to lend at the short end and borrow at the long end on the relatively flat curve. Among the ways to implement this trade are the following:
- Receive fixed/pay floating in the steeper market and pay fixed/receive floating in the flatter market.
- Take a long position in bond (or note) futures in the steeper market and a short futures position in the flatter market.
Question: 1: I understand why lend at the long end and borrow at the short end on the relatively steep curve. Because yield curve is upward sloping, long end yield is greater than short end yield. But why lend at the short end and borrow at the long end on the relatively flat curve? I think, as long as the yield curve is upward sloping(no matter it is relatively steep or flat), we should always lend at the long end and borrow at the short end.
2: “Take a long position in bond (or note) futures in the steeper market and a short futures position in the flatter market.” Why? What does it mean?