Hi! Does anyone know in q50 we use 0 as the beta of cash but 0.25 in 49? Thanks!
Don’t have the question in front of me to reference, but take note of beta vs duration. Cash has beta of 0 since it has no market risk, which is measured by beta. Some questions will tell you to use 0.25 when dealing with duration of cash. If no duration is specified for cash, assume that its 0.