I’m a bit confused about a question on practice problems.
we need to reduce the exposure to bond markets by reducing the amount of 100 exposure.
the bond portfolio’s duration is 6, and the tresury bond futures’s duration is 2 with the price of 10.
It is also given that the duration of cash equivalent and any hedged position is 1.
So the No. of futures to be sold = (1-6)/2 * (100/10) =25.
Why we need to use the duration of cash equivalent and any hedged position in the formula?