I just got it. Thanks.
I just finished getting through this reading for the first time today. It isnt real fun. What I am not real clear on is why we are going through this whole process. We know that in the end both the valuation based on real number and nominal numbers turns out the same…so why do it? Schweser doesn’t really touch on it. My only guess is that ratio analysis will be incorrect in some area (Schweser does have a few lines about this). Can someone tell me why we would go through the whole 5 step process described in LOS 43b in the real world?
can someone send it to me also… isola@fordham.edu
Thanks, guys! I’ll send to nikko0355
I just forwarded it to the above 3 posters
I started on this LOS tonight and was “surprised” to say the least and got onto AF. Great to see that many feel the same about this one. If anyone is online, pls send the doc to abmarket at yahoo dot com.
Hi, Can any of you guys send it across to me as well pls. I think I struggled with that LOS the most. Email: amit.bolakani@gmail.com Cheers, -Amit
I forwarded it to the above 4 people…could you please each take over on the forwarding now? many thanks…
This falls into the group of LOS that I will sweep under the rug. Less frustration and more time for the other 5 billion possible questions. …unfortunately I’m gonna need a bigger rug.
Can someone please email it to me too please? dafonz at gmail.com Question (I’mgoing off the schweser here)… in figure 2 on page 110 (2008 edition), there is a depreciation expense of 75 under the today column. In figure 6 after everything is converted to nominal, there’s no depreciation expense there, but in figure 7 it magically appears again. WTF?
I shall be working on this either tonight or tomorrow. It depends what mood I am in after work. Wish me luck!!
please share if you can. will be eternally grateful for any help carwyn.butcher@blueyonder.co.uk thanks
can i jump on the bandwagon too… please send to ben@benbrooks.ca many thanks!