Let me try to explain: The question means that Depreciation expense for Tax purpose will be accounted in the first year. This result in lower taxable income. -> lower tax payable Dep. expense for financial reporting is devided into 2 years, implying that pretax income is higher than the taxable income -> higher tax expense Since tax payable < tax expense -> you have DTL.
I think I did the same mistake of comparing expenses rather than comparing income.
Ok so I have seen a question in Schweser Q bank where it says valuation allowance is not only presented under US GAAP. It’s also presented under IFRS.