Mo34, WS is correct. You do not need the consent of a “Prospective Client” only a “Current Client”. Just think about it for a while.
CFAI volume I page 70…Independent practice says nothing about notifying clients. page 89 - conflict of interest after reading these it is clear that answers A & D are clearly not right…and you don’t need written consent from prospective clients to engage in an outside practice so C is also not correct.
strikershank Wrote: ------------------------------------------------------- > WS- i’m with you… > > Mo34 - you haven’t answered what i’m curious > about: > > isn’t the standard you just quoted referring to > independent judgement or something like that, not > duty to employers as the question you posted > refers to? Striker, Standard IV - Duties to employers. CFAI book 1 p75. I read the part about independent practice, and you’re right, you only need employer consent. I guess the loyalty standard applies more closely in this case as it clearly deals with independent practice. Sorry for any confusion I might have caused.
Don’t apologize - these threads are awesome because it gets everything thinking and understanding about a topic rather than regurgitating something we memorized. In the long run, I feel these hotly contested threads are key to my success.
B definitely. You don’t need consent from clients to go into practice – just like you don’t need consent from client A to manage client B’s assets