This is what i have conculded
a) If both currency and asset return hedged - Domestic risk free rate
b) If only currency hedged - Foreign Bond + (Domestic risk free rate - Foreign risk free rate)
c) If only asset hedged - (Appreciation/Depreciation in foreign currency)
Magician bro, please tell if this is correct?
If the return on a foreign asset in DC is (1+FC)(1+FX)-1 where FC is the E® of the foreign asset in the foreign currency and FX is the expected FX return, then the return is 1.085*.9684-1= 5.07%. I think that this is a mistake by the CFAI with an inconsistancy with their use of approximation and geometrically linked methods, moving on.
^ you are talking about unhedged.