Leverage ratios in Intercorporate investments

PierreCFA,

Why is this not true, DA/EA > (DA+DS)/(EA+FMVS) if DSA ?

Under partial goodwill, denominator is not FMVS.

For the second part, I made a mistake about the amount of Debt and Equity after acquisition.

The leverage in partial goodwill acquisition method must be (DA+DS)/(EA+b*FMVS)

So

DA/EA > (DA+DS)/(EA+b*FMVS) <=> DA/EA > DS/(b*FMVS)

I think this is the right formula now (or maybe not yet :slight_smile: )

Thanks. I got the first part.

But I think its not b*DS but 100% DS.

Equity is less than full goodwill also. FMVS less the difference between full goodwill and partial goodwill.

For the second part, I made a mistake about the amount of Debt and Equity after acquisition. The debt after acquisition is DA+100%*DS

About the value of equity after acquisition, I forget how to calculate it. I’m not sure whether you are right. Could you explain why the equity in partial goodwill method is equal to FMVS less the difference between full goodwill and partial goodwill?

Because debt is the same under both methods and total assets higher under full goodwill. So equity is higher for the same amount.

Yes I see. Thanks

Old thread here.

Why Equity method will have Assets of 10+1 …it shd remain 10

why Equity = 2+1 …it shd remain 2…

only adjustment shd movement of cash from CA to Investment Account…

Is this correct?

Consolidation method +2 in equity is coming by way of Minority interest…should we consider it as equity?

refering to this post